Dan answered a question today, in itself something to be applauded, and his answer is interesting. It'll be worth keeping around for reference.
" It's quite easy: I'm NOT the one who should decide for everyone else on
matters of subjective opinion. I've never said otherwise."
So are you claiming that all scriptural interpretation is "subjective opinion"? If so, then why bother to assert that anyone else's "subjective opinion" is incorrect? Or that yours is "correct"?
"On the
other hand, when we're talking about objective facts, then I'm STILL not
the one who decides. Objective facts are just objective facts."
So, are you claiming that "objective fact" is not testable? How do YOU determine when something is "objective fact"? Why should anyone accept anything you say about something being an "objective fact" or "reality"?
"As
a point of demonstrable, objective fact, the Bible has Jesus recorded
as saying he'd come to preach good news to the poor. Period. That's
observable, demonstrable. It's a fact."
What is the fact that you are claiming is "observable, demonstrable"? That there are words in the Bible that tell us that Jesus said that?
"Now, does that MEAN that
there was factually a literal Jesus? That this Jesus was literally
saying he'd come to preach good news to the literal poor? No, those are
matters of interpretations."
Interesting. Are you suggesting that there is nothing in the Bible that can be identified as "objective fact" with a high degree of accuracy? Or, are you suggesting that we have no possible way to identify "objective fact" when it's recorded in the Bible? That literally everything in the Bible becomes a matter of "subjective opinion" because we can't trust those who wrote the Bible? To what other ancient literature do you apply this standard? Are you claiming that the existence of Julius Caesar is "subjective opinion"? That Hannibal, didn't really exist? Pray tell, expound on this.
"From there, we can consider, OK, but
which interpretations are most reasonable?"
OK, but isn't "reasonable" in itself a subjective measure? Is it reasonable to take a text, and conclude that the text means something completely opposite from what the plain meaning of the words tell us?
"Marshal, apart from any real
evidence, says that Jesus did not mean the literally material poor in
that passage."
When you say "real evidence" do you not mean "evidence that you personally accept as subjectively reasonable"? "
'I note the plethora of passages from Jesus that, on the
face of them, appear to be referencing the literal poor - this passage
included - and note that we have no textual reason of significance that
Jesus didn't mean literal poor. But I can't prove objectively what the
author (Luke, in this case) meant or what Jesus - as recorded by Luke -
objectively meant."
So, despite your repeated assertions that Jesus primary "gospel" was specifically aimed at "the poor", specifically the materially "poor", are you now saying that this is just your "subjective opinion"? Are you suggesting that we categorize the topics that Jesus is recorded as speaking of, and interpret those only in light of Jesus' teaching on topic X? Or isn't it reasonable to look at the whole breadth of Jesus teaching, and draw conclusions from that?
"I've been pretty clear on all this."
I'm sure you think you have, but I personally think that clarity is not one of your strong suits.
Especially when you insist that your "subjective opinion" be treated as "objective fact", or that you are simply pointing out "reality".